Is (60\% of $a$ ) + (40\% of $b$ ) greater than 50\% of $(a+b)$ ? I. $a>b$ II. $b>0$
Answer
SELF-PRACTICE — the source book printed no answer.
Nothing is invented here, so this question has no answer on record.
Explanation
We have (60\% of $a$ ) $+(40 \%$ of $b)=50 \%$ of $(a+b)$, when $a=b$. (60\% of $a$ ) $+(40 \%$ of $b)>50 \%$ of $(a+b)$, when $a>b$. (60\% of $a$ ) + (40\% of $b$ ) < 50\% of $(a+b)$, when $a<b$. So, I alone gives the answer while II alone does not. ∴ Correct answer is (a).
Explanation as extracted from the printed page; notation may be imperfect.