If (a-1/a)=p, then (a²+1/(a²)) is equal to · ABC26GN1263

Subject: General Aptitude · Chapter: Simplification

If $\left(a-\frac{1}{a}\right)=p$, then $\left(a^{2}+\frac{1}{a^{2}}\right)$ is equal to

(a)$p$

(b)$p-2$

(c)$p+2$

(d)None of these

Answer

Answer (as printed): D

Explanation

No explanation was printed for this question.

Study loop for Simplification